No, for the purpose of Income-tax Law you can claim only one property as self occupied property and other property will be deemed to be let-out property.
Articles in this section
- I have 5 separate let out properties. Should I calculate the house property income separately for each individual property or by clubbing all the rental receipts in one calculation?
- What is the tax of treatment of unrealised rent which is subsequently realised?
- How to compute income from a property, when part of the property is self-occupied and part is let-out?
- How to compute income from a property which is self-occupied for part of the year and let out for part of the year?
- In case of a self-occupied property, how much of interest on housing loan can be claimed as deduction?
- I own two houses both of which are occupied by me and my family. Is there any tax implication?
- I own two houses. One is a farmhouse that I visit on weekends and the other is in the city that I use on weekdays. Is it correct to treat both these residences as self occupied?
- What will be the tax implications if a person occupies more than one property for his residence? Can he treat all the properties as self occupied (SOP) and claim gross annual value (GAV) as Nil?
- What income is charged to tax under the head “Income from house property”?
- Can a property not used for residence by the taxpayer be treated as self occupied property?